HIMACHAL PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE
COMMISSION
HPAS (2013)/ HAS (2013)
SESSION:
FORENOON
GENERAL
STUDIES
PAPER
I
Time Allowed:
2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY
AFTER THE COMMENCENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE
CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE.
3. You
have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided along
side; DO NOT writes anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This
Test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi
and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you wan to mark on the Answered Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, marks the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for reach item.
5. You
have to marks all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
6. All
items carry equal marks.
7. Before
you precede to marks in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per
instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After
you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet the
examination has concluded, you should and over to the invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted o take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets
for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty
for wrong answers:
THERE
WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN
THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
I.
There are four alternatives for the answers
to every question. For each question for which a wrong answerer has been given
by the candidate, one third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted
as penalty.
II.
If a candidate gives more than one answer, it
will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the given answer happen to be
correct and there will be same penalty as above for that questions.
III.
If a question is left blanks i.e. no answer is
given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
11. In
case of any discrepancy found in English and Hindi version in this paper, the
English version may be treated as correct and final.
GENERAL STUDIES
Time
Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
1. Who
is the author of Abode of God?
a) B.
N. Datar
b) Andrew
Wilson
c) Ram
Rahul
d) William
Moorcraft
2. Which
of the following is not a tributary of the Beas ?
a) Suketi
b) Banganga
c) Ali
d) Uhal
3. With
which of the following is Lossar festival associated ?
a) Termination
of the rainy season
b) Tibetan
New year
c) Bull
fighting
d) Burning
of Bugs, lice and fleas
4. Where
is KEE monastery ?
a) Spiti
b) Kinnaur
c) Lahaul
d) Naggar
5. At
what interval is Bhunda festival of Nirmand held ?
a) Two
years
b) Six
years
c) Twelve
years
d) Fifteen
years
6. With
which region of Himachal Pradesh is Sih ballet associated ?
a) Kullu-Manali
b) Pangi-Bharmaur
c) Nurpur-Kangra
d) Rohru-Jubbal
7. Which
Sultan of Delhi helped Raja Megh Chand of Bilaspur to regain his lost kingdom ?
a) Alaudid
Khalji
b) Altamash
c) Balban
d) Ferozshah
Tughlak
8. Which
Raja of Mandi built the Darbar Hall I 1906 ?
a) Bhawani
Sen
b) Bhup
Sen
c) Zalim
Sen
d) Shyam
Sen
9. In
which year did Shimla become summer capital of the Britihs Raj ?
a) 1864
b) 1871
c) 1876
d) 1888
10. Who
was Amrita Shergil ?
a) Actress
b) Poetress
c) Dancer
d) Painter
11. Who
won the 2012 Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha slection by the highest magin ?
a) Virdhadra
Singh
b) Mohan
Lal Brakta
c) Rohit
Thakur
d) Sanjay
Rattan
12. Youths
of which age group are eligible to avail the skill development allowance
announced by the Himachal Pradesh Governmetn in 2013-14 budget ?
a) 18-25
years
b) 20-25
years
c) 20-30
years
d) 25-35
years
13. Match
the following proposed rope wyas correctly and choose the correct answer for
the codes given below :
Column – I
|
Column – II
|
I.
Dharmshala
|
a)
Bijli Mahadev
|
II.
Bhunter
|
b)
Rohtang
|
III.
Palchan
|
c)
Triund
|
IV.
Village Jia
|
d)
Adi Himani Chamunda
|
Codes :
a) (i)-(b),(ii)-(a),(iii)-(c),
(iv)-(d)
b) (i)-(a),(ii)-(b),(iii)-(c),
(iv)-(d)
c) (i)-(c),(ii)-(b),(iii)-(d),
(iv)-(a)
d) (i)-(c),(ii)-(a),(iii)-(b),
(iv)-(d)
14. According
to 2008-09 data which district of Himachal Pradesh has recorded the highest
percentage in the production of Pulses ?
a) Kangra
b) Mandi
c) Shimla
d) Chamba
15. Which
one of the following is not a precondition for implementing National Programme
for Education of girls at the elementary level ?
a) It
is educationally backward block
b) The
SC/ST population is more than 50 percent
c) The
rural female literacy rate is below national average
d) Gender
gap is above the national level
16. At
which place in Shimla District is Herbal garden ?
a) Dumreda
b) Jharag
c) Purag
d) Sainj
17. Which
scheme has been introduced in place of Kishori Shakti Yojana in some district
of Himachal Pradesh ?
a) Beti
Hai Anmol
b) Rajiv
Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls
c) Self-Employment
Scheme for women
d) Mukhya
Mantri Kanyadan Yojana
18. Which
sector has highest outlay (in percentage terms) in the Annual Plan of 2011-12 ?
a) Agriculture
b) Transport
c) Energy
d) Social
Services
19. Besides
Kinnaur and Lahaul Spiti which district of Himachal Pradesh ahs recorded the
lowest percentage of urban population in the 2011 census ?
a) Kangra
b) Mandi
c) Chamba
d) Hamirpur
20. What
was the percentage of female literacy in Himachal Pradesh in 1951?
a) Two
percent
b) Six
percent
c) Eight
percent
d) Ten
percent
21. According
to legend what is the vehicle of Kamdev ?
a) Parrot
b) Crow
c) Pigeon
d) Sparrow
22. Whom
did emperor Ashok send to lanka to promote Buddhism ?
a) Mahinder
and Sona
b) Sona
and Uttara
c) Uttara
and Sanghamitra
d) Mahinder
and Sanghamitra
23. Given
below in Column I are some titles and in Column II the names of their authors. Find
the correct match and choose the correct answer form the correct answer form
the codes given below :
Column – I
|
Column – II
|
a)
Indica
|
i.
Herodotus
|
b)
Historica
|
ii.
Ibn Batuta
|
c)
Safarnama
|
iii.
Alberuni
|
d)
Tarikh-al-Hind
|
iv.
Megasthenes
|
Codes :
a) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),
(d)-(iv)
b) (a)-(iv),(b)-(i),(c)-(ii),
(d)-(iii)
c) (a)-(iii),(b)-(ii),(c)-(i),
(d)-(iv)
d) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),
(d)-(i)
24. There
are four upvedas. Three of them are Ayurved, Dhanurved and Sthapaty Ved. Which
is the fourth ?
a) Yoga
Veda
b) Nyaya
Veda
c) Raja
Veda
d) Gandharva
Veda
25. Which
one of the following women scholars belong to the later Vedic period ?
a) Gargi
b) Lopmudra
c) Shraddha
d) Yami
26. Whom
did the Huns defeat to establish their rule in India ?
a) Samudragupta
b) Harshavardhan
c) Kanishka
d) Skandagupta
27. The
first Rani of Mewar who committed johar was Padmini. Who was the second ?
a) Hansabai
b) Raj
Kumari
c) Karvavati
d) Karma
Khati
28. At
which place did the battle between Babur and Ran Sanga take place in 1527 ?
a) Kannauj
b) Khanua
c) Mewat
d) Sirohi
29. Against
whom did Aurangzeb fight the battle at Samugarh ?
a) Murad
b) Shuja
c) Dara
d) Sulaiman
Shikot
30. Who
organized the Red Shirts Movements ?
a) Khan
Abdul Gaffar Khan
b) Abdul
Rahim
c) Fazal-ul-Haq
d) Shaukat
Ali
31. Who
founded the revolutionary organization named ‘Abhinava Bharat’?
a) Hardayal
b) Bhai
Parmanand
c) Hadgewar
d) Savarkar
Brothers
32. Who
is associated with the moderate strand of the Khilaft movementof 1919-20 ?
a) Chotani
b) Ali
Brothers
c) Hasrat
Mohani
d) Journalists
and Ulema
33. The
marked feature of Moshad, the spy agency of Israel is that it ahs as its member
a large number of ……………
a) Artists
b) Convicts
c) Women
d) Non-Israelis
34. What
is the major religion of Myanmar ?
a) Hinduism
b) Islam
c) Rohingya
d) Buddhism
35. With
which field is Malala Yousafzai associated ?
a) Girl
Education
b) Protection
of environment
c) Welfare
of the windows
d) Empowerment
of the poor
36. Identify
the country whose seat of legislature, executive and judiciary is at three
different cities ?
a) Canada
b) Russia
c) South
Africa
d) Somalia
37. Which
one of the following refused Nobel Prize awarded to him ?
a) Henry
Kissinger
b) Jimmy
Carter
c) Woodrow
Wilson
d) Theodore
Roosevelt
38. With
which of the following is Good Friday associated ?
a) Birth
of Christ
b) Crucification
of Christ
c) Resurrection
of Christ
d) Founding
of Christianity
39. With
which game is Ravi Rampaul associated ?
a) Football
b) Hockey
c) Tennis
d) Cricket
40. When
was the world Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) set up ?
a) 1999
b) 2003
c) 2006
d) 2009
41. What
is INS Chakra ?
a) Aircraft
carrier
b) Submarine
c) Missile
ship
d) Naval
helicopter
42. Who
was the first caliph of Islam ?
a) Umar
b) Usman
c) Ali
d) Abu
Bakr
43. What
is Curiosity Rover ?
a) Nasa’s
research vehicle sent to Mars
b) An
intelligence agency of the USA
c) A
medical research group in Europe
d) An
association of scientists of India
44. Which
of the following States records the highest proportion of scheduled castes
population ?
a) Parts
of Uttar Pradesh
b) Punjab
c) Haryana
d) Gujrat
45. Which
country is called the “Sugar Bowl” of the world ?
a) India
b) Cuba
c) USA
d) Indonesia
46. Which
of the following landforms is not associated with glaciations?
a) Hanging
Valley
b) Moraines
c) Inselberg
d) Drumlin
47. Koderma,
a place in Jharkhand, is famous for :
a) Mica
Mining
b) Photo
goods
c) Cement
factory
d) Leather
goods
48. The
world Meteorological Organization (WMO) is base in :
a) Washington
b) Geneva
c) Moscow
d) London
49. Which
of the following states Nathpa Jhakri Hydel Project under execution ?
a) Sikkim
b) Jammu
and Kashmir
c) Himachal
Pradesh
d) Uttarakhand
50. The
most ideal region for the cultivation of cotton in India is :
a) The
Brahmaputra Valley
b) Indo-Gangetic
plain
c) The
Deccan Plateau
d) The
Rann of Kutch
51. The
continental drift theory was propounded by :
a) F.
B. Taylor
b) Lowthian
Green
c) Alfred
Wegner
d) J.
A. Steers
52. What
are stalagmites ?
a) Erosional
landforms
b) Depositional
landforms
c) Volcanic
landforms
d) Solution
holes
53. Which
of the following factors is responsible for the rapid growth of sugar
production in South India as compared to North India ?
i.
Higher per acre field of sugarcane
ii.
Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
iii.
Lower labour cost
iv.
Loner crushing period
a) (i) and
(ii)
b) (i),(ii)
and (iii)
c) (i),(iii)and
(iv)
d) (i),(ii)
and(iv)
54. Which
of the following state groups is the largest producer of iron-ore in India ?
a) Orissa,
M.P. and Jharkhand
b) M.P.,
Maharashtra and Punjab
c) Maharashtra,
Orissa and A.P.
d) Bihar,
West Bengal and U.P.
55. Consider
the following events :
1) Partition
of Bengal
2) Lucknow
Pact
3) Establishment
of Arya Samaj
4) Promulgation
of Vernacular Press Act.
Which one of the following is the
correct chronological sequence of the events given above :
Code:
a) 3,4,1
and 2
b) 4,3,1
and 2
c) 3,1,2
and 4
d) 4,1,3
and 2
56. Whose
government was defeated for the first time on a vote of confidence?
a) Chandra
Shekhar Government
b) V.P.
Singh Government
c) Charan
Singh Government
d) Deve
Gowda Government
57. The
question hour in the House of the people is followed by :
a) Supplementary
question
b) Starred
question
c) Unstarred
question
d) Short
notice question
58. The
members of which of the following committees are elected by the Houses ?
1) The
Public Accounts Committee
2) The
Committee on Petitions
3) The
committee on Public Undertakings
4) The
committee on Subordinate Legislation
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below :
Codes:
a) 1,2
and 4
b) 1,2
and 3
c) 1
and 3
d) 1
and 2
59. Which
of the following states have recently (2013) got separate High Courts?
1) Sikkim
2) Manipur
3) Meghalaya
4) Tripura
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Codes:
a) 1
and 2
b) 1, 2
and 3
c) 1,3
and 4
d) 2,3
and 4
60. For
which of the following posts has the supreme court directed the central
government that not only civil servants but other persons with impeccable
integrity should also be considered?
a) Chief
Election Commissioner
b) Central
Vigilance Commissioner
c) Director
of Central Bureau of Investigation
d) Comptroller
and Auditor General of India
61. Which
of the following commissions/committees have recommended legal protection to
Whistle Blowers?
1) Law
commission
2) Second
Administrative Reforms Commission
3) Election
Commission
4) Vohra
Committee
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Codes:
a) 1
and 2
b) 1
and 3
c) 2,3
and 4
d) 1,3
and 4
62. Which
of the following commissions has recommended that under the RTI Act, MPs and
MLAs should be declared as Public Authorities except when they are discharging
legislative functions ?
a) Law
Commission
b) Election
Commission
c) National
Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
d) Second
Administrative Reforms Commission
63. Which
of the following organizations I sot affiliated to CPI(M) ?
a) Students
Federation of India
b) All
India Democratic Women’s Association
c) All
India Agricultural Workers Union
d) All
India Trade Union Congress
64. The
Indian Constitution refers to minorities based on :
a) Religion
or language
b) Religion
or region
c) Region
or language
d) Language
or culture
65. Which
of the following are statutory bodies ?
1) National
Human Rights Commission
2) Union
Public Service Commission
3) National
Commission for Women
4) National
Commission for Minorities
Select the correct answer form the codes
given below :
a) 1,2
and 3
b) 1,3
and 4
c) 2,3
and 4
d) 1,2
and 4
66. The
73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were made during
the Primeministership of :
a) Rajiv
Gandhi
b) Varasimha
Rao
c) V.P.
singh
d) Atal
Bihari Vajpayee
67. CENVAT
is associated with :
a) Direct
Tax
b) Income
Tax
c) Indirect
Tax
d) Service
Tax
68. Which
of the following occupied the highest place in growth rate during the 11th
plan period 2007-12?
a) Agricultural
Sector
b) Service
Sector
c) Industrial
Sector
d) Mining
69. First
share market in India was established in :
a) Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) Chennai
d) Mumbai
70. Which
one of the following was the Chairman of the committee on pricing and taxation
of petroleum products ?
a) Raja
J. Chelliah
b) C. Rangarajan
c) Y.V.
Reddy
d) Abid
Hussain
71. For
national manufacturing and Investment Zones (NMIZ), Special Economic zone(SEZ)
and EOUs (Exports-oriented Units), which of the following statements is true ?
a) NMIZs
and EOUs will be located within SEZs
b) SEZs
and EOUs will be located within NMIZs
c) NMIZs
are independent of SEZs and EOUs
d) NMIZs
and SEZs will be competitors in nature
72. To
which community/organization maximum goods are exported form India ?
a) EEC
b) Commonwealth
Nation
c) SAFTA
d) OPEC
73. UNDP
has introduced a new poverty index known as :
a) Human
Poverty Index
b) Poorest
among Poor Index
c) Social
Poverty Index
d) Multi-Dimensional
Poverty Index
74. Project
‘Sankalp’ is associated with the elimination of :
a) Illiteracy
b) Polio
c) Unemployment
d) AIDS/HIV
75. Which
Indian company has been included for the first time in U.S.A’s index NASDAQ-100
?
a) Infosys
b) Tata
Motors
c) ICICI
Bank
d) Videsh
Sanchar Nigam Limited
76. The
terms ‘NEER’ and ‘REER’ are related with :
a) Foreign
exchange rate
b) External
economic resources
c) National
and regional economic equality
d) Environmental
regulation
77. When
was World Trade Organization set up by the member countries of the United
Nation to promote trade among countries?
a) 1994
b) 1995
c) 1999
d) 2005
78. In
what capacity was P.C. Mahalanobis associated with the formulation of the
economic policy of independent India?
a) As
an applied statistician
b) As
Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
c) As a
leading industrialist
d) As a
minister of the Union Cabinet
79. Which
type of pollution is caused by two-wheelers ?
a) Air Pollution
b) Soil
Pollution
c) Air
and Soil Pollution
d) Water
Pollution
80. Most
hazardous metal pollution of automobile exhaust is :
a) Cd
b) Hg
c) Copper
d) Lead
81. The
excess discharge of fertilizers into water bodies results in :
a) Silt
b) Death
of hydrophytes
c) Eutrophication
d) Growth
of fish
82. If
BOD of a river water is found very high, this mean water :
a) Is
clean
b) Is
highly polluted
c) Is
having algae
d) Contains
dissolved minerals
83. Minimata
disease affects the :
a) Circulatory
System
b) Skeletal
System
c) Nervous
System
d) Respiratory
System
84. Chernobyl
disaster was caused by a :
a) Nuclear
weapon accident
b) Nuclear
waste leak
c) Nuclear
reactor accident
d) Nuclear
test
85. Chemical
which cause bone cancer and degeneration of tissue is :
a) I-131
b) Ca-40
c) I-127
d) Str-90
86. The antiknock
agent added to unleaded petrol is :
a) Tetraethyl
lead
b) Tetramethyl
lead
c) Dibromoethane
d) Methyl
tertiary butyl ether
87. The
range of normal human hearing lies between :
a) 500
Hz to 10000 Hz
b) 2000
Hz to 200000 Hz
c) 5000
Hz to 6000 Hz
d) 50
Hz to 15000 Hz
88. 3-4 benzopyrene
causes :
a) Leukemia
b) Cytosilicosis
c) Lung
cancer
d) Tuberculosis
89. Climate
of world is threatened by :
a) Increasing
concentration of atmospheric oxygen
b) Decreasing
amount of atmospheric oxygen
c) Increasing
amount of atmospheric CO2
d) Decreasing
amount of atmospheric nitrogen concentration
90. In
coming years, skin related disorder will become more common due to :
a) Excessive
use of detergents
b) Water
pollution
c) Air
pollution
d) Depletion
of ozone layer
91. Natural
silk is a :
a) Polypeptide
b) Polysaccharide
c) Polyvinyl
Chloride
d) Polyacrylonitrite
92. Which
of the following can be remelted time and again without producing any change ?
a) PVC
b) Bakelite
c) Melmac
d) Urea-formaldehyde
resin
93. The
drugs used to get relief from pain are called :
a) Antipyretics
b) Analgesics
c) Antibiotics
d) Antiseptics
94. Most
commonly used tranquillizers are derivatives of :
a) Acetic
acid
b) Salicylic
acid
c) Barbituric
acid
d) Sulphanilamide
95. SLV-3
and ASLV rockets used :
a) Hybrid
propellants
b) Composite
solid propellants
c) Double
base propellants
d) Billiquid
propellants
96. A
Transformer is used for :
a) Increasing
DC Voltage
b) Decreasing
DC Voltage
c) Converting
DC to AC
d) Increasing
or decreasing AC voltage
97. Convex
lens are used for correction of :
a) Short-sightedness
b) Long-sightedness
c) Cataract
d) None
of the above
98. One
litre of water is equivalent to :
a) 1.5
kg
b) 1.25
kg
c) kg
d) 0.9
kg
99. Metals
are good conductors of electricity because :
a) The
atoms are highly packed
b) They
have high malign point
c) They
have free electrons
d) All
of the above
100.
In the process of galvanization an iron sheet
is coated with :
a) Zinc
b) Aluminum
c) Tin
d) Magnesium
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