Wednesday 30 April 2014

Patwari -- DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE



GOVERNMENT OF HIMACHAL PRADESH
DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE
Preliminary Examination for Selection of Patwari Candidates
QUESTION BOOKLET
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes                                                                             Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1.    Which of the following rivers does not flow in Himachal Pradesh ?
Ravi
Jhelum
Beas
Chandrabhaga
2.    Which is the large scale employment generation programme of Government of India ?
Atal Bihari Gramin Rozgar Yogana
Mahatam Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarnatee Scheme
Jawarharlal Nehru Employment Scheme
Indira Gandhi Rozgar Yojana
3.    Where is Sukhna Lake Located ?
New Delhi
Udaipur
Bhopal
Chandigarh
4.    With which game Ranji Trophy is associated ?
Football
Cricket
Basket Ball
Hockey
5.    Which is the highest civilian award of India ?
Padama Shri
Padma Vibhushan
Khel Ratna
Bharat Ratna
6.    Where were Olympics 2012 games organized ?
USA
Canada
UK
Spain
7.    Whale is a kind of ?
Mammal
Insect
Reptile
Bird
8.    Instrument for measuring intensity of earthquake is called :
Monograph
Galvanometer
Seismograph
Hydrograph
9.    Where from Mahatma Gandhi started his historic Dandi March ?
Dandi
Champaran
Chauri Chaura
Sabarmati Ashram
10.  Name the imaginary line passing through India :
Equator
Tropic of Cancer
Tropic of Capricorn
International Date Line

HIGH COURT OF HIMACHAL PRADESH


HIGH COURT OF HIMACHAL PRADESH, SHIMLA, HP
Test for the post of clerks in the Subordinate Judiciary
QUESTION BOOKLET
Time Allowed: 1.5 Hours                                                                             Maximum Marks: 70

INSTRUCTIONS

 
1.    16th July 1939 is important in the history of Himachal Pradesh as it is associated with
a)    The Battle of Nerti shahpur took place
b)    Dhami Firing Tragedy
c)    Pajotha movement in sirmaur state started
d)    Suket Satyagraha
2.    Year 1365 A.D. is associated with which of the following
a)    Mahmood Gazani attacked Kangra
b)    Jahangir captured Kangra
c)    Feroz Shah tughlag attacked Jawalamukhi
d)    Battle of Nerti Shahpur
3.    Who was appointed as governor of Kangra Fort by Raja Ranjit Singh after he captured Kangra ?
a)    Amar Singh Thapa
b)    Bhim Chand
c)    Dessa Singh Majithia
d)    Dev Singh Majithia
4.    Who was the founder of Suket State ?
a)    Bahu Sen
b)    Bir Sen
c)    Ashok Sen
d)    Giri Sen
5.    The festival of Phulech is celebrated in the month of Bhadon or in the beginning of Asauj in which region ?
a)    Chamba
b)    Bharmor
c)    Pangi
d)    Kinnaur
6.    ‘Lavi’ which is celebrated in Himachal is a :
a)    Dance form
b)    Food
c)    Fair
d)    Marriage Ritual
7.    Which is the largest Manmade lake in Himachal Pradesh ?
a)    Govind Sagar
b)    Pandoh
c)    Renuka
d)    Pong
8.    Who was the first Britisher to come to Shimla ?
a)    Lord Curzon
b)    Sir. Henry Mortimore Durand
c)    Sir David Ochterloney
d)    Sir Kennedy
9.    Who was the First lady Chief Justice of H.P. High Court ?
a)    Justice Leela Seth
b)    Justice Kamlesh Kumari
c)    Justice Sujata Manohar
d)    Justice Fathima Beevi
10.  The total number of Members in the State Legislative assembly is
a)    45
b)    67
c)    68
d)    69
11.  ASEAN is abbreviation of :
a)    Advance South East Asian Nation
b)    Advance Satellite programme for Education of Children in Asian Nation
c)    Augmented Satellite East Area Network
d)    Association of South-East Asian Nation
12.  PIN stands for :
a)    Personal Identity number
b)    Postal Index number
c)    Point Identification Number
d)    Postal Address Identification Number
13.  Asha Kan Cup is assocated with which game ?
a)    Foot Ball
b)    Lawn Tennis (Men)
c)    Polo
d)    Hockey
14.  Which of the trophy is given for Women Hockey in India ?
a)    Duleep Trophy
b)    Barna Belalck Cup
c)    Lady Ratan Tata Trophy
d)    Agha Khan Cup
15.  What is the venue of 17th Asian games :
a)    Busan, South Korea
b)    Guangzhou, China
c)    Incheon, South Korea
d)    Doha, Qatar

Tuesday 29 April 2014

ENGINEERING ASSISTANT AND TECHNICIAN IN PRASAR BHARATI



STAFF SELECTION BOARD
ENGINEERING ASSISTANT AND TECHNICIAN IN PRASAR BHARATI

PAPER – II
Part (F)
Information Technology
1.    (a) What is the main use of an operating system? Give few names of operating systems for personal computers and explain any one of them.                                                                       25
(b) What are the steps in data acquisition? Explain the data acquisition steps using an example of preparing a bill of sale. Assume that the customer purchases three items form the ABC general stores. The items codes, item names, prices and quantities of each item may be assumed.     25
2.    (a) What is .gif compressed image format? Explain any of the methods of compression that are used in gif compression. Approximately how much compression is achievable with this compression?                                                                                                                                25
(b) What are the functions of a disk interface? Give the names of four standard interfaces. Give a brief description of a popular interface used with personal computers.                                        25
3.    (a) What do you understand by the term “Killer-application”? Why e-mail is called a killer application? Explain the different parts of an e-mail address.                                                      25
(b) What are operational, tactical, strategic and statutory information which would be required by a hospital?                                                                                                                                    25
4.    (a) Explain the system architecture of e-commerce by looking at it as set of layers with the physical network as the bottom layer and applications as the top layer.                                      25
(b) What is a Trojan? In what way is it different from a virus? How do you remove a Trojan from your personal computer?                                                                                                              25
5.    (a) Describe the relationships of bits, byes, characters, fields, records, files, tables and databases. What are different file processing types? Explain any one of them.                           25
(b) What is the difference between a speaker-dependent and a speaker-independent speech to text system? What are the applications of a speaker-independent text to speech system? What is the current status of such systems?                                                                                              25


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Civill Services 2013 Question Papers

 Civill Services 2013 Question Papers

 

 Pre Question Paper




Main Question Paper

  • Essay
  • Hindi(C)
  • English(C)
  • General Studies I
  • General Studies II
  • General Studies III
  • General Studies IV
  • Optional Subject
  • 1) Public Administration         I        &          II
  • 2) Geography                        I        &          II

Monday 28 April 2014

SSB Engineering Assistant Prasar Bharti 2013



STAFF SELECTION BOARD
ENGINEERING ASSISTANT AND TECHNICIAN IN PRASAR BHARATI

This booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the following three parts:
Part (a) : General Intelligence and Reasoning            (50 Questions)
Part (b): General awareness                                         (50 Questions)
Part (C) : Technical Knowledge                                    (100 questions)


PART (C) : TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE
1.     Cloudy nights are generally warmer than clear ones. Which one of the following could be the reasons ?
a)     Clouds have high thermal conductivity
b)     Clouds do not radiate heat
c)     Clouds have low thermal conductivity
d)     Clouds do not absorb heat
2.     If a mixture of 1.00 g each of H2  and He exerts a total pressure of 0.48 atm, what is the ratio of the partial pressures of hydrogen to helium ?
a)     3
b)     0.5
c)     1
d)     2
3.     An electron travelling horizontally from north to south enters a region where a uniform electric fields is directed downward. What is the direction of the electric force exerted on the electron once it has entered the field ?
a)     To the west
b)     Downward
c)     Upward
d)     To the east
4.     If the electric field at a distance r away form charge Q is 36 N/C, what is the ratio of the electric fields at r, 2r and 3r ?
a)     36: 18:9
b)     36:9:4
c)     9:3:1
d)     36:18:12
5.     What is the linear distance between the sixth and eight maxima on the screen ? the wavelength z is 550 mn, the slits are separated by 0.14 mm, and the screen is 70 cm form the slits.
a)     2.75 mm
b)     55 mm
c)     5.5 mm
d)     5 mm
6.     A source of sound of frequency 400 Hz is placed inside water. If the velocities of sound in water and air are 1500 m/s and 330 m/s respectively, what is the frequency of sound received by an observer standing in air ?
a)     2000 Hz
b)     80 Hz
c)     400 Hz
d)     800 Hz
7.     If the average kinetic energy of oxygen molecule is ‘E; at 300 K, them that of hydrogen molecule at the same temperature is
a)     E/2
b)     E
c)     E/16
d)     E/8
8.     For molecules with a centre of symmetry, transitions that are allowed in the infrared are forbidden in Raman spectra and vice-versa. This rule is called as
a)     Rule of incoherence
b)     Rule of mutual exclusion
c)     Rule of inversion
d)     Pauli’s exclusion principle
9.     Transmission grating is used to determine
a)     Polarization of light
b)     Intensity of light
c)     Hyperfine structure
d)     Wavelength of light
10.  The reactance of a capacitance at 50 Hz is 5 ohms. What is the reactance at 200 Hz ?
a)     20 ohms
b)     2.0 ohms
c)     1.25 ohms
d)     12.5 ohms
11.  A stationary observer heard the frequency of whistling sound of a moving train as 420 Hz and 350 Hz when it moves towards and away form him respectively. If the velocity of sound is 300 m/s, then the speed of the train is
a)     75 m/s
b)     25 m/s
c)     50 m/s
d)     40 m/s
12.  If a metal rod of length ‘l’ and diameter ‘d’ is clamped at one end and twisted at the other end by applying a couple, then the couple per unit twist is directly proportional to
a)         l-2
b)         l4
c)         d2
d)         d4
13.   If germanium is doped with boron and silicon is doped with indium, then
a)     They are p-type and n-type semiconductors respectively
b)     Both are p-type semiconductors
c)     Both are n-type semiconductors
d)     They are n-type and p-type semiconductors respectively
14.  Hydrogen bomb is a device which makes use of the principle of
a)     Nuclear fission
b)     Chemical reaction
c)     Nuclear fusion
d)     Nuclear reaction
15.  The grade of service is measured in
a)     Fractional number
b)     Logarithmic number
c)     Percentage
d)     Number
16.  Quantization noise occurs in
a)     PWD
b)     PCM
c)     TDM
d)     FDM
17.  Which of the following frequencies is likely to be associated with AM radio broadcast ?
a)     10 GHz
b)     1000 kHz
c)     100 MHz
d)     500 MHz
18.  Polarization of radio wave is determined by
a)     The gain of the antenna
b)     The directivity of the antenna
c)     The direction of the magnetic flux lines with respect to the surface of the earth
d)     The direction of the electric flux lines with respect of the surface of the earth.
19.  The amplitude of an audio signal is 10 and that of the carrier wave is 50. Percentage modulation is
a)     50
b)     0.2
c)     10
d)     20
20.  The VSB signal is produced from the DSB signal by employing
a)     High frequency modulation
b)     Simple filter
c)     Balanced modulator
d)     Ring modulator
21.  A parabolic antenna is commonly used at
a)     500 MHz
b)     50 Hz
c)     500 kHz
d)     50 MHz
22.  The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is
a)     TM11
b)         TE01
c)         TM01
d)     TE10
23.  Amplitude  limiter is not essential in the following detector :
a)     Ratio detector
b)     Foster – seeley discriminator
c)     Balanced slope discriminator
d)     Single slope detector
24.  Armstrong modulator generates
a)     PM
b)     AM
c)     SSB
d)     FM
25.  If the FM has modulation index large compared to one radian, that yields
a)     Phase deviation
b)     Narrow band FM
c)     Wide band FM
d)     Phase modulation
26.  Spectral density of white noise
a)     Varies with frequency and bandwidth
b)     Varies with frequency
c)     Is constant
d)     Varies with bandwidth
27.  Microwave signals transmitted towards the sky are
a)     Transmitted through the ionosphere
b)     Unable to reach the ionosphere
c)     Strongly reflected by the ionosphere
d)     Strongly absorbed by the ionosphere
28.  The device used as optical detector is
a)     LCD
b)     LED
c)     LASER
d)     PIN photodiode
29.  The frequency associated with short wave I (SW I) are
a)     25 to 34 MHz
b)     1.6 to 4.5 MHz
c)     4.5 to 16 MHz
d)     16 to 25 MHz
30.  Video transmission in TV broadcast is usually on
a)     SM
b)     AM
c)     FM
d)     PM
31.  Electric wire size is expressed in SWG. SWG stands for
a)     Standard Wire Gauge
b)     Short Wire Gauge
c)     Stranded Wire Gauge
d)     Sealed Wire Gauge
32.  In a current carrying conductor, Biot –savart law is used to determine
a)     S
b)     B
c)     H
d)     MMF
33.  The average value of sinusoidal voltage signal is given by
a)     0.0637 Vm
b)     0.318 Vm
c)     0.0318 Vm
d)     0.637 Vm
34.  For ceiling fans the single-phase motors generally used are
a)     Capacitor start and run type
b)     Resistor split phase type
c)     Permanent split capacitor type
d)     Capacitor start type
35.  If the iron core form the electromagnet is removed, then the inductance of the electromagnet will
a)     May increase or decrease
b)     Increase
c)     Decrease
d)     Remain the same
36.  Which of the following materials has negative temperature coefficient of resistance ?
a)     Carbon
b)     Copper
c)     Brass
d)     Lead
37.  The range of voltmeter and ammeter can be increase respectively by
a)     Connecting low value of series resistance and high value of shunt resistance
b)     Low value of parallel resistance and high value of series resistance
c)     High value of series resistance and low value of parallel resistance
d)     Using series capacitor and series inductor
38.  If the power gain of an amplifier is P, and the voltage gain is Q, the current gain will be
a)     PQ
b)     P+Q
c)     P/Q
d)     Q/P
39.  The number of comparators in a 4-bit flash ADC is
a)     16
b)     4
c)     5
d)     15
40.  A ring counter consisting of five flip-flop will have
a)     Infinite states
b)     5 states
c)     10 states
d)     32 states
41.  Many organizations with their offices in different countries of the world connect their computers through telecommunication satellites and telephone lies such a network is called
a)     ECONET
b)     LAN
c)     WAN
d)     ETHERNET
42.  Which is the command line prompt for TCP file transfer ?
a)     #
b)     C:>
c)     FTP>
d)     $
43.  Which of the following is not a semiconductor ?
a)     Diamond
b)     Germanium
c)     Silicon
d)     Gallium arsenide
44.  In a full wave rectifier, the current flows in each of the diodes for
a)     One-fourth cycle of the input signal
b)     The complete cycle of the input signal
c)     Less than half the cycle of the input signal
d)     Half-cycle of the input signal
45.  The negative feedback in an amplifier
a)     Decrease the bandwidth
b)     Increases voltage gain
c)     Does not affect the voltage gain
d)     Reduces voltage gain
46.  An astable mutivibrator is basically s
a)     Two stage RC coupled amplifier
b)     Two stage tuned amplifier
c)     RF amplifier with positive feedback
d)     RF amplifier with negative feedback
47.  The emitter of a transistor is very ______ and _______ doped.
a)     Thick, heavely
b)     Thin, lightly
c)     Thin,heavily
d)     Thick, lightly
48.  In amplifier application FET operates in the
a)     Zener breakdown region
b)     Controlled resistor regon
c)     Controlled source region
d)     Avalanche breakdown region
49.  Which property of a database transaction says the effect of concurrent execution of statement must be equivalent to serial execution ?
a)     Durability
b)     Atomicity
c)     Consistency
d)     isolation
50.  A disk crash is reported under
a)     Media failure
b)     User error
c)     Statement failure
d)     Instance failure
51.  Which of the following is used for serial access storage only
a)     CD
b)     RAM
c)     Magnetic tape
d)     Magnetic disk
52.  CPU’s processing power is measure in
a)     Nano seconds
b)     IPS
c)     CIPS
d)     NIPS
53.  A 24-bit operand permits as many as ______ addresses
a)     16000
b)     160000
c)     1600
d)     None of the above
54.  The section of code that accesses shared variables is called
a)     Procedure
b)     Critical section
c)     Block
d)     Semaphore
55.  Prepaging is the process of bringing the page to the memory
a)     Where locality of reference is not known
b)     At the time the page is referenced
c)     Before the page is referenced
d)     When page fault occurs
56.  Inodes, pid and uid are the ---- names of an entity.
a)     Entity
b)     Symbolic
c)     Logical
d)     Physical
57.  Identify the strategy which ahs the lowest storage cost and high locality of reference
a)     Selective replication
b)     Centralized
c)     Partitioned
d)     Complete replication
58.  Under which data allocation metrics is under –utilization of resources analyzed ?
a)     Communication cost
b)     Locality of reference
c)     Performance
d)     Storage cost
59.  The operands for a statement can be a
a)     Keyword
b)     Comment
c)     Constant
d)     Mnemonic
60.  Which kind of instruction is used by the compilers and assemblers to align coder ?
a)     There operand instruction
b)     No operand instruction
c)     One operand instruction
d)     Two operand instruction
61.  Which buffering methodology suffers form ‘Head of line’ problem ?
a)     Input-output buffering
b)     Input buffering
c)     Output buffering
d)     Central buffering
62.  How is a variable accessed form another file?
a)     The global variable is referenced via the extern specifier
b)     The global variable is referenced via the auto specifier
c)     The global variable is referenced via the pointer specifier
d)     The global variable is reference via the ext specifier



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