UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Civil Service Examination 2013
GENERAL
STUDIES
PAPER
II
Time
Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY
AFTER THE COMMENCEMTN OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOTHAVE ANY UNPIRNTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITMES ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE
CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE.
3. You
have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided along
side; DO NOT writes anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This
Test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi
and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you wan to mark on the Answered Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, marks the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for reach item.
5. You
have to marks all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
6. All
items carry equal marks.
7. Before
you precede to marks in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per
instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After
you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet the
examination has concluded, you should and over to the invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted o take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets
for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty
for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR
WRONG ANSERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
I.
There are four alternatives for the answers
to every question. For each question for which a wrong answerer has been given
by the candidate, one third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
II.
If a candidate gives more than one answer, it
will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the given answer happen to be
correct and there will be same penalty as above for that questions.
III.
If a question is left blanks i.e. no answer
is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
11. In
case of any discrepancy found in English and Hindi version in this paper, the
English version may be treated as correct and final.
APTITUDE TEST
Time
Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
Directions
for the following 8 (eight) items :
Read
the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your
answers to these items should be based on the passages only .
Passage – 1
The
subject of democracy has become severely of democracy has become severely
muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent
years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who
want to ‘impose’ democracty on countries in the non-Western world (in these
countries ‘own interest’, of course) and those who are opposed to such
‘imposition’ (because of the respect for the countries’ ‘own ways’). But the
entire language of ‘imposition’, used by both sides, is extraordinarily
inappropriate since it makes the imp;icit assumption that democracy belongs
exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially ‘Western’ idea
which has originated and flourished only in the West.
But the thesis and the pessimism it
generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be
extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in
ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in ancient
India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to
take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in
different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only
in terms of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the
pervasive demands for participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with
for-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized
cultural product of the west.
In cannot, of course, be doubted
that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is
largely the product of European and American experience over the last few
centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in
institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There
can be little doubt that there is a major ‘Western’ achievement here.
1. Which of the following is closest to
the view of democracy as mentioned in the above passage?
a)
The
subject of democracy is a muddle due to a desire to portray it as a Western
concept, ‘alien’ to non-Western countries.
b)
The
language of imposition of democracy is inappropriate. There is, however, a need
to consider this concept in the backdrop of culture of ‘own ways’ of
non-western society.
c)
While
democracy is not essentially a Western idea belonging exclusively to the West,
the institutional structure of current democratic practices has been their
contribution.
d)
None
of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
2. With reference to the passage, the
following assumptions have been made :
1.
Many
of the non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because they have
democracy to be a specialized cultural product of the West.
2.
Western
countries are always trying to impose democracy on non-Western countries
Which of the above if/are valid
assumption/assumptions ?
a)
1
only
b)
2
only
c)
Both
1 and 2
d)
Neither
1 nor 2
Passage
– 2
Corporate governance is base on
principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness,
being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary
disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land,
accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to
conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point which is highlighted on
corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to distinguish
between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company.
Fundamentally, there is a level of
confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good
corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors
on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market
corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign
institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which
companies to invest in. its is also known to have a positive influence on the
share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance
front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at more
reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre
of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam.
3.
According to the passage, which of the following should be the
practice/practices in good corporate governance?
1. Companies should always comply with
labour and tax laws of the land.
2. Every company in the country should
have a government representative as one of the independent directors on the
board to ensure transparency.
3. The manager of a company should never
invest his personal funds in the company.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
4.
According to the passage, which of the following is/are the major
benefit/benefits of good corporate governance?
1. Good corporate governance leads to
increase in share price of the company.
2. A company with good corporate
governance always increases its business turnover rapidly
3. Good corporate governance is the main
criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a
company.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2
and 3
Passage
– 3
Malnutrition most commonly occurs
between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child’s
food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often
attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where
adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per cent of children under
five do not consume enough food. The child’s dependence on someone else to feed
him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is
working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older
sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child’s
food needs and how to satisfy them.
5.
According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced
a) If the children have regular intake,
of food.
b) After they cross the age of five.
c) If the food needs of younger children
are known.
d) If the responsibility of feeding
younger children is given to adults.
6.
According to the author, poverty is not the main cause of malnutrition, but the
fact that
1. Taking care of younger ones is not a
priority for working mothers
2. Awareness of nutritional needs is not
propagated by the Public Health authorities.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 4
A number of empirical studies find
that farmers are risk-averse, thought only moderately in many cases. There is
also evidence to show that farmers’ risk aversion results in cropping patterns
and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers
adopt a number of strategies to mange and cope with agricultural risks. These
include practices like crop and field diversification, non-farm employment,
storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also
institutions ranging form share tenancy to kinship, extended family and
informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that
the same type of risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can
affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the
traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy
interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions.
Policies may aim at tackling agricultural
risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop
insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to
pests and disease. Polices which affect risk indirectly are irrigation,
subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk-specific policy is
sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not
specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only
indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to tackle agricultural risk
directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many
other developing countries – because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed
agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of
their income instability.
7.
The need for policy intervention to mitigate risks in agriculture is because
a) Farmers are extremely risk-averse.
b) Farmers do not know how to mitigate
risks
c) The methods adopted by farmers and
existing risk sharing institutions are not adequate.
d) Majority of farmers depend on rain-fed
agriculture.
8.
Which of the following observations emerges form the above passage ?
a) One can identify a single policy that
can reduce risk without any side-effect
b) No single risk-specific policy is sufficient
to reduce agricultural risk.
c) Polices which affect risk indirectly
can eliminate it.
d) Government’s policy intervention can
mitigate agricultural risk completely.
9.
Consider the following statements :
i.
A
primary group is relatively smaller in size
ii.
Intimacy
is an essential characteristic of a primary group..
iii.
A
family may be an example of a primary group.
In
the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?
a) All families are primary groups.
b) All primary groups are families
c) A group of smaller size is always a
primary group.
d) Members of a primary group know each
other intimately.
10. Four friends, A,B,C and D distribute some
money among themselves in such a manner that A gets one less than B,C gets 5
more than D, D gets 3 more than B. Who
gets the smallest amount ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Direction
for the following 4(four) items :
Read
the following statements and answer the four items that follow :
Five
cities P,Q,R,S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows:
P
and Q are connected by boat as well as rail
S
and R are connected by bus and boat
Q
and T are connected by air only
P
and R are connected by boat only
T
and R are connected by rail and bus.
11.
which mode of transport would help one to reach R starting form Q, but without
changing the mode of transport ?
a) Boat
b) Rail
c) Bus
d) Air
12.
If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P, which
of the following places must he visit twice ?
a) Q
b) R
c) S
d) T
13.
Which one of the following pairs of cities is connected by any of the routes
directly without going to any other city ?
a) P and T
b) T and S
c) Q and R
d) None of these
14.
Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below are there
maximum travel options available ?
a) Q and S
b) P and R
c) P and T
d) Q and R
Directions
for the following 3 (three) items :
Read
the following passage and answer the three items that follow :
A tennis coach is trying to put
together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament. For this 7
players are available : males A, B and C; and females W,X,Y and Z. All players
have equal capability and at least 2 males will be there in the team. For a
team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot
play with W,C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
15.
If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the
following groups ?
a) A,C,W and Y
b) A,C,X and Y
c) A,C,Y and Z
d) A,W,Y and Z
16.
If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the
following groups ?
a) A,B,C and W
b) A,B,C and Z
c) A,B,C and X
d) A,W,Y and Z
17.
If all the there males are selected, then how many combination of four member
teams are possible ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
18.
The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on different
aspects of the compositon of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for
this work; they are Rohit, Tanya,Shobha, Kaushal, Kunal, Mukesh and Jaswant.
Rohit
and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and Shobha will not work together.
Mukesh and Kunal want to work together.
Which
of the following is the most acceptable group of people that can be selected by
the music director ?
a) Rohit, shobha, kunal and Kaushal
b) Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit
c) Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jaswant
d) Shobha, Tanya, Rohit and Mukesh
19.
Five people A,B,C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is
spaced equidistant form adjacent chairs.
i.
C
is seated next to A
ii.
A
is seated two seats from D
iii.
B
is not seated next to A
Which
of the following must be true ?
I.
D
is seated next to B
II.
E
is seated next to A
Select
the correct answer format he codes given below :
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Direction
for the following 3 (three) items :
Examine
carefully the following statements and answer the three items that follow :
Out
of four friends A,B, C and D
A
and B play football and cricket,
B
and C play cricket and hockey,
A
and D play basketball and football,
C
and D play hockey and basketball
20.
Who does not play hockey ?
a) D
b) C
c) B
d) A
21.
Who plays football, basketball and hockey ?
a) D
b) C
c) B
d) A
22.
Which game do B,C and D play ?
a) Basketball
b) Hockey
c) Cricket
d) Football
23.
Geeta is older than her cousin Meena. Meena’s brother Bipin is older than
Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins
the game more often than Geeta.
Based
on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made.
Which one of these logically follows form the information given above?
a) While playing chess with Geeta and
Meena, Bipin often loses.
b) Geeta is the oldest among the three
c) Geeta hates to lose the game
d) Meena is the youngest of the three.
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