Sunday, 20 April 2014

HIMACHAL PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION HPAS (2013)/ HAS (2013)



HIMACHAL PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
HPAS (2013)/ HAS (2013)
SESSION: FORENOON
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER I
Time Allowed: 2 Hours                                                                                 Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1.     IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2.     ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE.
3.     You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided along side; DO NOT writes anything else on the Test Booklet.
4.     This Test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you wan to mark on the Answered Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, marks the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for reach item.
5.     You have to marks all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
6.     All items carry equal marks.
7.     Before you precede to marks in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8.     After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet the examination has concluded, you should and over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted o take away with you the Test Booklet.
9.     Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10.  Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
                                      I.        There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. For each question for which a wrong answerer has been given by the candidate, one third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
                                     II.        If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the given answer happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that questions.
                                    III.        If a question is left blanks i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
11.  In case of any discrepancy found in English and Hindi version in this paper, the English version may be treated as correct and final.
 
  
GENERAL STUDIES
Time Allowed: 2 Hours                                                                     Maximum Marks : 200
1.     Who is the author of Abode of God?
a)     B. N. Datar
b)    Andrew Wilson
c)     Ram Rahul
d)     William Moorcraft
2.     Which of the following is not a tributary of the Beas ?
a)     Suketi
b)     Banganga
c)     Ali
d)     Uhal
3.     With which of the following is Lossar festival associated ?
a)     Termination of the rainy season
b)    Tibetan New year
c)     Bull fighting
d)     Burning of Bugs, lice and fleas
4.     Where is KEE monastery ?
a)    Spiti
b)     Kinnaur
c)     Lahaul
d)     Naggar
5.     At what interval is Bhunda festival of Nirmand held ?
a)     Two years
b)     Six years
c)     Twelve years
d)     Fifteen years
6.     With which region of Himachal Pradesh is Sih ballet associated ?
a)     Kullu-Manali
b)     Pangi-Bharmaur
c)     Nurpur-Kangra
d)    Rohru-Jubbal
7.     Which Sultan of Delhi helped Raja Megh Chand of Bilaspur to regain his lost kingdom ?
a)     Alaudid Khalji
b)    Altamash
c)     Balban
d)     Ferozshah Tughlak
8.     Which Raja of Mandi built the Darbar Hall I 1906 ?
a)    Bhawani Sen
b)     Bhup Sen
c)     Zalim Sen
d)     Shyam Sen
9.     In which year did Shimla become summer capital of the Britihs Raj ?
a)    1864
b)     1871
c)     1876
d)     1888
10.  Who was Amrita Shergil ?
a)     Actress
b)     Poetress
c)     Dancer
d)    Painter
11.  Who won the 2012 Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha slection by the highest magin ?
a)     Virdhadra Singh
b)    Mohan Lal Brakta
c)     Rohit Thakur
d)     Sanjay Rattan
12.  Youths of which age group are eligible to avail the skill development allowance announced by the Himachal Pradesh Governmetn in 2013-14 budget ?
a)     18-25 years
b)     20-25 years
c)     20-30 years
d)    25-35 years
13.  Match the following proposed rope wyas correctly and choose the correct answer for the codes given below :
Column – I
Column – II
      I.        Dharmshala
a)     Bijli Mahadev
     II.        Bhunter
b)     Rohtang
    III.        Palchan
c)     Triund
   IV.        Village Jia
d)     Adi Himani Chamunda

Codes :
a)     (i)-(b),(ii)-(a),(iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
b)     (i)-(a),(ii)-(b),(iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
c)     (i)-(c),(ii)-(b),(iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
d)    (i)-(c),(ii)-(a),(iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)

14.  According to 2008-09 data which district of Himachal Pradesh has recorded the highest percentage in the production of Pulses ?
a)     Kangra
b)     Mandi
c)     Shimla
d)     Chamba
15.  Which one of the following is not a precondition for implementing National Programme for Education of girls at the elementary level ?
a)     It is educationally backward block
b)    The SC/ST population is more than 50 percent
c)     The rural female literacy rate is below national average
d)     Gender gap is above the national level
16.  At which place in Shimla District is Herbal garden ?
a)    Dumreda
b)     Jharag
c)     Purag
d)     Sainj
17.  Which scheme has been introduced in place of Kishori Shakti Yojana in some district of Himachal Pradesh ?
a)     Beti Hai Anmol
b)    Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls
c)     Self-Employment Scheme for women
d)     Mukhya Mantri Kanyadan Yojana
18.  Which sector has highest outlay (in percentage terms) in the Annual Plan of 2011-12 ?
a)     Agriculture
b)     Transport
c)     Energy
d)    Social Services
19.  Besides Kinnaur and Lahaul Spiti which district of Himachal Pradesh ahs recorded the lowest percentage of urban population in the 2011 census ?
a)    Kangra
b)     Mandi
c)     Chamba
d)     Hamirpur
20.  What was the percentage of female literacy in Himachal Pradesh in 1951?
a)    Two percent
b)     Six percent
c)     Eight percent
d)     Ten percent
21.  According to legend what is the vehicle of Kamdev ?
a)    Parrot
b)     Crow
c)     Pigeon
d)     Sparrow
22.  Whom did emperor Ashok send to lanka to promote Buddhism ?
a)     Mahinder and Sona
b)     Sona and Uttara
c)     Uttara and Sanghamitra
d)    Mahinder and Sanghamitra
23.  Given below in Column I are some titles and in Column II the names of their authors. Find the correct match and choose the correct answer form the correct answer form the codes given below :
Column – I
Column – II
a)     Indica
      i.        Herodotus
b)     Historica
     ii.        Ibn Batuta
c)     Safarnama
    iii.        Alberuni
d)     Tarikh-al-Hind
    iv.        Megasthenes

Codes :
a)     (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
b)    (a)-(iv),(b)-(i),(c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
c)     (a)-(iii),(b)-(ii),(c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
d)     (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

24.  There are four upvedas. Three of them are Ayurved, Dhanurved and Sthapaty Ved. Which is the fourth ?
a)     Yoga Veda
b)     Nyaya Veda
c)     Raja Veda
d)    Gandharva Veda
25.  Which one of the following women scholars belong to the later Vedic period ?
a)    Gargi
b)     Lopmudra
c)     Shraddha
d)     Yami
26.  Whom did the Huns defeat to establish their rule in India ?
a)     Samudragupta
b)     Harshavardhan
c)     Kanishka
d)    Skandagupta
27.  The first Rani of Mewar who committed johar was Padmini. Who was the second ?
a)     Hansabai
b)     Raj Kumari
c)     Karvavati
d)     Karma Khati
28.  At which place did the battle between Babur and Ran Sanga take place in 1527 ?
a)     Kannauj
b)    Khanua
c)     Mewat
d)     Sirohi
29.  Against whom did Aurangzeb fight the battle at Samugarh ?
a)     Murad
b)     Shuja
c)     Dara
d)     Sulaiman Shikot
30.  Who organized the Red Shirts Movements ?
a)    Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
b)     Abdul Rahim
c)     Fazal-ul-Haq
d)     Shaukat Ali
31.  Who founded the revolutionary organization named ‘Abhinava Bharat’?
a)     Hardayal
b)     Bhai Parmanand
c)     Hadgewar
d)    Savarkar Brothers
32.  Who is associated with the moderate strand of the Khilaft movementof 1919-20 ?
a)    Chotani
b)     Ali Brothers
c)     Hasrat Mohani
d)     Journalists and Ulema
33.  The marked feature of Moshad, the spy agency of Israel is that it ahs as its member a large number of ……………
a)     Artists
b)     Convicts
c)     Women
d)     Non-Israelis
34.  What is the major religion of Myanmar ?
a)     Hinduism
b)     Islam
c)     Rohingya
d)    Buddhism
35.  With which field is Malala Yousafzai associated ?
a)    Girl Education
b)     Protection of environment
c)     Welfare of the windows
d)     Empowerment of the poor
36.  Identify the country whose seat of legislature, executive and judiciary is at three different cities ?
a)     Canada
b)     Russia
c)     South Africa
d)     Somalia
37.  Which one of the following refused Nobel Prize awarded to him ?
a)    Henry Kissinger
b)     Jimmy Carter
c)     Woodrow Wilson
d)     Theodore Roosevelt
38.  With which of the following is Good Friday associated ?
a)     Birth of Christ
b)    Crucification of Christ
c)     Resurrection of Christ
d)     Founding of Christianity
39.  With which game is Ravi Rampaul associated ?
a)     Football
b)     Hockey
c)     Tennis
d)    Cricket
40.  When was the world Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) set up ?
a)    1999
b)     2003
c)     2006
d)     2009
41.  What is INS Chakra ?
a)     Aircraft carrier
b)    Submarine
c)     Missile ship
d)     Naval helicopter
42.  Who was the first caliph of Islam ?
a)     Umar
b)     Usman
c)     Ali
d)    Abu Bakr
43.  What is Curiosity Rover ?
a)    Nasa’s research vehicle sent to Mars
b)     An intelligence agency of the USA
c)     A medical research group in Europe
d)     An association of scientists of India
44.  Which of the following States records the highest proportion of scheduled castes population ?
a)     Parts of Uttar Pradesh
b)    Punjab
c)     Haryana
d)     Gujrat
45.  Which country is called the “Sugar Bowl” of the world ?
a)     India
b)    Cuba
c)     USA
d)     Indonesia
46.  Which of the following landforms is not associated with glaciations?
a)     Hanging Valley
b)     Moraines
c)     Inselberg
d)     Drumlin
47.  Koderma, a place in Jharkhand, is famous for :
a)    Mica Mining
b)     Photo goods
c)     Cement factory
d)     Leather goods
48.  The world Meteorological Organization (WMO) is base in :
a)     Washington
b)    Geneva
c)     Moscow
d)     London
49.  Which of the following states Nathpa Jhakri Hydel Project under execution ?
a)     Sikkim
b)     Jammu and Kashmir
c)     Himachal Pradesh
d)     Uttarakhand
50.  The most ideal region for the cultivation of cotton in India is :
a)     The Brahmaputra Valley
b)     Indo-Gangetic plain
c)     The Deccan Plateau
d)     The Rann of Kutch
51.  The continental drift theory was propounded by :
a)     F. B. Taylor
b)     Lowthian Green
c)     Alfred Wegner
d)     J. A. Steers
52.  What are stalagmites ?
a)     Erosional landforms
b)    Depositional landforms
c)     Volcanic landforms
d)     Solution holes
53.  Which of the following factors is responsible for the rapid growth of sugar production in South India as compared to North India ?
                      i.        Higher per acre field of sugarcane
                     ii.        Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
                    iii.        Lower labour cost
                    iv.        Loner crushing period
a)     (i) and (ii)
b)     (i),(ii) and (iii)
c)     (i),(iii)and (iv)
d)    (i),(ii) and(iv)

54.  Which of the following state groups is the largest producer of iron-ore in India ?
a)    Orissa, M.P. and Jharkhand
b)     M.P., Maharashtra and Punjab
c)     Maharashtra, Orissa and A.P.
d)     Bihar, West Bengal and U.P.
55.  Consider the following events :
1)     Partition of Bengal
2)     Lucknow Pact
3)     Establishment of Arya Samaj
4)     Promulgation of Vernacular Press Act.
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the events given above :
Code:
a)    3,4,1 and 2
b)     4,3,1 and 2
c)     3,1,2 and 4
d)     4,1,3 and 2
56.  Whose government was defeated for the first time on a vote of confidence?
a)     Chandra Shekhar Government
b)    V.P. Singh Government
c)     Charan Singh Government
d)     Deve Gowda Government
57.  The question hour in the House of the people is followed by :
a)     Supplementary question
b)     Starred question
c)     Unstarred question
d)    Short notice question
58.  The members of which of the following committees are elected by the Houses ?
1)     The Public Accounts Committee
2)     The Committee on Petitions
3)     The committee on Public Undertakings
4)     The committee on Subordinate Legislation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
a)     1,2 and 4
b)     1,2 and 3
c)     1 and 3
d)    1 and 2
59.  Which of the following states have recently (2013) got separate High Courts?
1)     Sikkim
2)     Manipur
3)     Meghalaya
4)     Tripura
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a)     1 and 2
b)     1, 2 and 3
c)     1,3 and 4
d)    2,3 and 4
60.  For which of the following posts has the supreme court directed the central government that not only civil servants but other persons with impeccable integrity should also be considered?
a)     Chief Election Commissioner
b)    Central Vigilance Commissioner
c)     Director of Central Bureau of Investigation
d)     Comptroller and Auditor General of India
61.  Which of the following commissions/committees have recommended legal protection to Whistle Blowers?
1)     Law commission
2)     Second Administrative Reforms Commission
3)     Election Commission
4)     Vohra Committee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a)    1 and 2
b)     1 and 3
c)     2,3 and 4
d)     1,3 and 4
62.  Which of the following commissions has recommended that under the RTI Act, MPs and MLAs should be declared as Public Authorities except when they are discharging legislative functions ?
a)     Law Commission
b)     Election Commission
c)     National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
d)    Second Administrative Reforms Commission
63.  Which of the following organizations I sot affiliated to CPI(M) ?
a)     Students Federation of India
b)     All India Democratic Women’s Association
c)     All India Agricultural Workers Union
d)    All India Trade Union Congress
64.  The Indian Constitution refers to minorities based on :
a)    Religion or language
b)     Religion or region
c)     Region or language
d)     Language or culture
65.  Which of the following are statutory bodies ?
1)     National Human Rights Commission
2)     Union Public Service Commission
3)     National Commission for Women
4)     National Commission for Minorities
Select the correct answer form the codes given below :
a)     1,2 and 3
b)    1,3 and 4
c)     2,3 and 4
d)     1,2 and 4
66.  The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were made during the Primeministership of :
a)     Rajiv Gandhi
b)    Varasimha Rao
c)     V.P. singh
d)     Atal Bihari Vajpayee
67.  CENVAT is associated with :
a)     Direct Tax
b)     Income Tax
c)     Indirect Tax
d)     Service Tax
68.  Which of the following occupied the highest place in growth rate during the 11th plan period 2007-12?
a)     Agricultural Sector
b)    Service Sector
c)     Industrial Sector
d)     Mining
69.  First share market in India was established in :
a)     Delhi
b)     Kolkata
c)     Chennai
d)    Mumbai
70.  Which one of the following was the Chairman of the committee on pricing and taxation of petroleum products ?
a)     Raja J. Chelliah
b)    C. Rangarajan
c)     Y.V. Reddy
d)     Abid Hussain
71.  For national manufacturing and Investment Zones (NMIZ), Special Economic zone(SEZ) and EOUs (Exports-oriented Units), which of the following statements is true ?
a)     NMIZs and EOUs will be located within SEZs
b)    SEZs and EOUs will be located within NMIZs
c)     NMIZs are independent of SEZs and EOUs
d)     NMIZs and SEZs will be competitors in nature
72.  To which community/organization maximum goods are exported form India ?
a)     EEC
b)     Commonwealth Nation
c)     SAFTA
d)    OPEC
73.  UNDP has introduced a new poverty index known as :
a)     Human Poverty Index
b)     Poorest among Poor Index
c)     Social Poverty Index
d)    Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index
74.  Project ‘Sankalp’ is associated with the elimination of :
a)     Illiteracy
b)     Polio
c)     Unemployment
d)    AIDS/HIV
75.  Which Indian company has been included for the first time in U.S.A’s index NASDAQ-100 ?
a)    Infosys
b)     Tata Motors
c)     ICICI Bank
d)     Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited
76.  The terms ‘NEER’ and ‘REER’ are related with :
a)    Foreign exchange rate
b)     External economic resources
c)     National and regional economic equality
d)     Environmental regulation
77.  When was World Trade Organization set up by the member countries of the United Nation to promote trade among countries?
a)     1994
b)    1995
c)     1999
d)     2005
78.  In what capacity was P.C. Mahalanobis associated with the formulation of the economic policy of independent India?
a)    As an applied statistician
b)     As Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
c)     As a leading industrialist
d)     As a minister of the Union Cabinet
79.  Which type of pollution is caused by two-wheelers ?
a)    Air  Pollution
b)     Soil Pollution
c)     Air and Soil Pollution
d)     Water Pollution
80.  Most hazardous metal pollution of automobile exhaust is :
a)     Cd
b)     Hg
c)     Copper
d)    Lead
81.  The excess discharge of fertilizers into water bodies results in :
a)     Silt
b)     Death of hydrophytes
c)     Eutrophication
d)     Growth of fish
82.  If BOD of a river water is found very high, this mean water :
a)     Is clean
b)    Is highly polluted
c)     Is having algae
d)     Contains dissolved minerals
83.  Minimata disease affects the :
a)     Circulatory System
b)     Skeletal System
c)     Nervous System
d)     Respiratory System
84.  Chernobyl disaster was caused by a :
a)     Nuclear weapon accident
b)     Nuclear waste leak
c)     Nuclear reactor accident
d)     Nuclear test
85.  Chemical which cause bone cancer and degeneration of tissue is :
a)     I-131
b)     Ca-40
c)     I-127
d)    Str-90
86.  The antiknock agent added to unleaded petrol is :
a)    Tetraethyl lead
b)     Tetramethyl lead
c)     Dibromoethane
d)     Methyl tertiary butyl ether
87.  The range of normal human hearing lies between :
a)     500 Hz to 10000 Hz
b)     2000 Hz to 200000 Hz
c)     5000 Hz to 6000 Hz
d)    50 Hz to 15000 Hz
88.  3-4 benzopyrene causes :
a)     Leukemia
b)     Cytosilicosis
c)     Lung cancer
d)     Tuberculosis
89.  Climate of world is threatened by :
a)     Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen
b)     Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
c)     Increasing amount of atmospheric CO2
d)     Decreasing amount of atmospheric nitrogen concentration
90.  In coming years, skin related disorder will become more common due to :
a)     Excessive use of detergents
b)     Water pollution
c)     Air pollution
d)    Depletion of ozone layer
91.  Natural silk is a :
a)     Polypeptide
b)     Polysaccharide
c)     Polyvinyl Chloride
d)     Polyacrylonitrite
92.  Which of the following can be remelted time and again without producing any change ?
a)    PVC
b)     Bakelite
c)     Melmac
d)     Urea-formaldehyde resin
93.  The drugs used to get relief from pain are called :
a)     Antipyretics
b)    Analgesics
c)     Antibiotics
d)     Antiseptics
94.  Most commonly used tranquillizers are derivatives of :
a)     Acetic acid
b)     Salicylic acid
c)     Barbituric acid
d)     Sulphanilamide
95.  SLV-3 and ASLV rockets used :
a)     Hybrid propellants
b)    Composite solid propellants
c)     Double base propellants
d)     Billiquid propellants
96.  A Transformer is used for :
a)     Increasing DC Voltage
b)     Decreasing DC Voltage
c)     Converting DC to AC
d)    Increasing or decreasing AC voltage
97.  Convex lens are used for correction of :
a)     Short-sightedness
b)    Long-sightedness
c)     Cataract
d)     None of the above
98.  One litre of water is equivalent to :
a)     1.5 kg
b)     1.25 kg
c)     kg
d)    0.9 kg

99.  Metals are good conductors of electricity because :
a)     The atoms are highly packed
b)     They have high malign point
c)     They have free electrons
d)     All of the above
100.        In the process of galvanization an iron sheet is coated with :
a)    Zinc
b)     Aluminum
c)     Tin
d)     Magnesium

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